Why the obsession with the lowest octave


From what is written in these forums and elsewhere see the following for instance.

Scroll down to the chart showing the even lowest instruments in this example recording rolling off very steeply at 40 Hz.

http://www.homerecordingconnection.com/news.php?action=view_story&id=154

It would appear that there is really very little to be heard between 20 and 40 Hz. Yet having true "full range" speakers is often the test of a great speaker. Does anyone beside me think that there is little to be gained by stretching the speakers bass performance below 30-40 cycles?
My own speakers make no apologies for going down to only 28 Hz and they are big floor standers JM Lab Electra 936s.
mechans
Dan,

Yes, the resolution of the analyzer I used was limited, but you still got a decent picture of how the music was distributed across the audible frequency spectrum, so that was educational albeit an approximation that does not relate all the details

I'm sure there are some good analyzers out there these days if one is interested, maybe more on the professional gear side.
I have learned a lot from my Behringer DEQ2496 which has a spectrum analizer function, 61 frequency bands, 1/3 octave. The internal wide bandwidth noise signal is a good representation of music, but you can also look at externally generated signals like a sine sweep.

And, after you understand your problem you can fix it with the EQ function. $350 including mic. What a deal!
Excellent comments and observations!

My experience(s) grew me into the desire for 20hz to 30hz bass. I use Merlin TSM-mme stand mount speakers. They are amazingly musical and love the sound. The bass is very good but not so deep (mid 40's in my room).

I purchased JL fathom subwoofers and very carefully adjusted them and blended them with the Merlins. I much perfer the full deep bass. On Ray Browns Moonlight Serenade I could hear all the notes pleasingly. But, with the JL's I can hear and feel the low 'E' just vibrating away.

I also listen to pipe organ works and enjoy the subwoofers in the system. I am convinced I need and desire bass to about 20hz.
FWIW, I'll share my experience on this.

I once heard a demo at a local shop. It was a recording of an acoustic guitar. Nothing else. Don't remember exactly what speakers I was listening to. I listened for a while, it sounded very nice. The dealer then said," I'm going to switch things up a bit and let you listen to the same recording, same speakers, same amp. Tell me what you think". I listened again, wow! It sounded more real, deeper soundstage, more immediate, etc. Like the notes were floating out there instead of coming from the speakers. I asked if he switched cd players? "Nope", he said, "I turned on the REL sub in the corner over there".

There's definitely information that we process, even if we don't exactly "hear" it.
On 1/21 Dan_Ed wrote:
To ignore the range from 20 to 40 Hz is to deny the FACT that there are harmonics down in that range that do affect realistic music reproduction.
and on 1/22 Arj wrote:
adding on to Dan_ed's post, from what i could figure out the fundamental at 40 Hz has a subharmonic at 20 Hz as well as overtones at 80 /160
If I understand these statements correctly, then a harmonic overtone series is produced both upwards and downwards in frequency from the fundamental frequency. That's just not my understanding of harmonic overtones. With very rare exceptions acoustic instruments produce only higher frequency overtones. Am I wrong? Can someone please explain the math.

Dan_Ed, good point about cymbal and bass content. Large cymbals are basically enharmonic and their frequency spectrum can go from 30Hz to 60+kHz. The bass content shouldn't be that surprising since the cymbals in question are 11" diameter and greater. They are the size of large woofers.