I have a question first - how do you bypass a cap with another cap? When you put them in parallel (ie like you would to bypass a resistor) you effectively add the capacitance (ie equal to the sum of the 2), which will reduce the highs. To accomplish what you're after you would want to reduce the value of the coupling capacitance.
I have no experience in the realm of hi fi amps, but build/mod guitar amps and the "brite caps" used in those tend to be 100-120pF. I have one amp that used a .01uF in a brite circuit and that was overwhelming. In a hi fi system where you have more highs, this would be compounded i would think.
I confess I don't speak with authority here - hopefully you'll get input from one of the amp gurus here . . .
I have no experience in the realm of hi fi amps, but build/mod guitar amps and the "brite caps" used in those tend to be 100-120pF. I have one amp that used a .01uF in a brite circuit and that was overwhelming. In a hi fi system where you have more highs, this would be compounded i would think.
I confess I don't speak with authority here - hopefully you'll get input from one of the amp gurus here . . .