tobor007,and all...
It should be easy, since it makes an obvious difference.
The problem is that no two hearing systems in a human are the same, and no two minds tied to the mechanics of the individualized ear are the same, and no two people program their hearing the same way.Hearing is half auto and half programmed.
put in a set of earplugs and drive downtown, get out of your car in a parking lot at a mall or what not..and then pull the plugs out. At first, all you will hear is a subsonic to high frequency cacophony of noise.
EVERYTHING coming in, no selectivity at all.
Over about 2-3 seconds, your ear programming will come on line, and curve fit itself to the scenario at hand. Your brain will erase the subsonic out of the equation, the blood in your veins, all of that, the wind..and then set itself up to decode what is going on in that space in front of you and then you will also ad in some conscious control. You can test this all day, and it will play out to your conscious realization exactly the same way, each time. all in that three seconds or so. What happened is that it stopped pedaling when you put the earplugs in, Over time... it shut off.
You take the ear plugs out.... and it slowly turns itself back on in the presence of all that sound.
So YES, a person can hear the filter and mind in unconscious and semi conscious modes..one can hear it do it’s thing.
There are some fundamental inferences, but everyone will have individualized them, re the intake into their ’system’..
good hearing is kinda equivalent to excellent rumination and intellect.
We now..hopefully all know we can’t allow people who don’t hear any of it and don’t understand how this works...we can’t allow them to apply their minimum of ignorance (worst:malice) to the equation and screech about ’charlatans’.
The simple straight forward Logic and reason that surrounds the complex equation --- would not allow such a thing...