But how do we know that the power amp don't color the sound as well since the signal has to go through different circuits there.Simple: It does.
What's your "diminishing returns" preamp choice?
What preamp would you consider is at the point of diminishing returns for you? I realize this is a vague and subjective question, but I think it will be interesting to hear the answers.
Of course, a $10,000 preamp will (probably) sound better than a $1,000 preamp but everyone has a different point at which they feel they have spent enough money. In some cases, one may feel that there isn't a significant difference between a $2k piece and a $10k piece to justify such a purchase.
I've noticed that there are some gems in the audio world that defy their price point. For instance, Apogee Centaurs, Halfer 9505 etc. I've always found such pieces fascinating.
Of course, a $10,000 preamp will (probably) sound better than a $1,000 preamp but everyone has a different point at which they feel they have spent enough money. In some cases, one may feel that there isn't a significant difference between a $2k piece and a $10k piece to justify such a purchase.
I've noticed that there are some gems in the audio world that defy their price point. For instance, Apogee Centaurs, Halfer 9505 etc. I've always found such pieces fascinating.
Showing 5 responses by atmasphere
Cost really doesn't have much to do with it- how good it sounds does. Many preamps have a price tag that is not in line with how they sound. I've seen $2000 preamps take $13,000 preamps and eat them for breakfast- better in every way. Yet people will often think the more expensive preamp is better just because of the price. You can make things too simple though; passives generally will eviscerate the bass impact as the math . You really do need a proper preamp if you want to hear everything correctly. The exception is if you can run the passive at full up. Even George agrees with this: http://forum.audiogon.com/cgi-bin/fr.pl?aamps&1427794264&openflup&12&4#12 |
In fact passives are usually better if they are full up, as there is less shunt resistance to ground, so the source (if a weak tube output) sees an even easier load, which equals better dynamics for them. Passives sound just the same down low as they do up high, so long as the source is not a weak high impedance tube output stage >1kohm These two contradict, both written by you. So which is it? My experience mirrors the former rather than the latter (we used to build a passive years ago and continue to test them); all (and I do mean all) weaken the bass as you turn it down from full. For our testing we used a CDP with a solid state output; it is by no means 'weak'. Some of this of course depends on the source- for example if an output coupling cap is involved (which it almost always is). But its all moot if you have a preamp as it buffers the input from the output cable. |
Both! You can't see the forest through the trees? I can see forests pretty well and also am pretty good at contradictions. Since you did write both statements I accept that you believe both of them but just so you know, if that is true it is also true that you are contradicting yourself. Perhaps it would help if you defined what is meant by a 'weak tube output stage' (since tubes can easily drive headphones if set up properly; we can do it with our UV-1 preamp) and also what you mean by a 'good low solid state output impedance' as clearly Oppo, Wadia, dcS and others apparently do not qualify. I am assuming you mean 'output impedance', perhaps you have some numbers? |