what's the point?


https://web.archive.org/web/20190311201740/http://www.tom-morrow-land.com/tests/ampchall/index.htm
According to this, all amps that are played below clipping sound the same (indiscernible). So what benefit does it serve to purchase an expensive amplifier that may use more expensive capacitors or other parts?
Oh, and what pricepoint does the law of diminishing returns kick in for a class a/b amp/integrated rated at say 150 watts per Channel  @ 8 ohms capable of increasing power at 4 ohms and still being stable?  Thanks.
labguy

Showing 1 response by jssmith

What's the point indeed. The blind test tells all. As someone who has taken two blind tests it was a subject that interested me, so I looked for all the blind tests I could find and the only one that ever showed a hint of a possible difference in amps was John Atkinson's (of Stereophile), who said there was a "slight" difference between amps. And he admitted there was a measured frequency response difference between the two amps and that the difference heard could be the interaction with the particular speakers used. He seemed to be fair in his analysis that given the small difference between those who could tell the difference and those who couldn't, along with a myriad of other explanations (and excuses), he didn't come down with a hard-core "Yes" or "No" answer, but one with a ton of caveats and leaning toward the suspicion that only a few highly trained people could "really" hear a difference.

You can read the whole test for yourself.
https://www.stereophile.com/features/113/index.html

And just in case you missed the Stereo Review article that stirred this whole subject into a firestorm, here it is.
https://web.archive.org/web/20060313071857/http://bruce.coppola.name/audio/Amp_Sound.pdf