I hope that I'm not acting the wet noodle here, but I am confused by claims that an LP recorded to tape and then played back has MORE fidelity than the original album. How is that possible?
I'm not coming from nowhere with this question. Years ago (80s-90s) I owned several reel-to-reel decks, including some that are considered the best of the lot today. I transferred many LPs to RTR and on a good day I was happy if the tape copy fidelity was close to the LP. There is always a loss when copying from one analog source to another. So how does loss = better fidelity?
I understand that tape media is (or is purported to be) better today. I also understand that LP playback gear and tape preamps (if you are employing a dedicated external tape pre) are better. Great. So you have minimized the loss. Where does the extra signal bandwidth come from?
Just curious...
I'm not coming from nowhere with this question. Years ago (80s-90s) I owned several reel-to-reel decks, including some that are considered the best of the lot today. I transferred many LPs to RTR and on a good day I was happy if the tape copy fidelity was close to the LP. There is always a loss when copying from one analog source to another. So how does loss = better fidelity?
I understand that tape media is (or is purported to be) better today. I also understand that LP playback gear and tape preamps (if you are employing a dedicated external tape pre) are better. Great. So you have minimized the loss. Where does the extra signal bandwidth come from?
Just curious...