Passive biamping question


If I have a six channel amplifier with one power supply per two channels and say each channel puts out say 100 watts, if I biamp with two channels per speaker for the three front channels of a HT system will this be basically like having 200 watts per channel and will the frequency balance of the speakers remain essentially the same? Thanks.
bobbob

Showing 4 responses by kr4

No. The spectral distribution of power in music signals is heavily weighted towards the bass. As a result, the total output is limited by the bass amp which will still be 100w. There is quite limited increase in power capability. (And 200w would only be 3dB anyway.)
That is passive biamping and any improvements in "quality" are debatable.
1. Vertical and horizontal biamping are two ways of connecting the amps but both are passive biamping if they are not implemented with an external active network before the amps and with the internal crossover removed/bypassed.

2. It depends on the music, of course, and that division is certainly possible. However, the power distribution is much more skewed to the bass in most cases. In addition, not everyone's crossover fits the bill.

3. However, it is still hard to see how "beneficial" it can be. Even if it was 50:50 power distribution at the user's low/mid crossover, the absolute maximum effective power increase one could realize would be 3db, the same as you would achieve with a single amp of double your present power. I see no other advantage with a passive arrangement.

4. OTOH, unless you miswire it, there is no downside to biamping and those who are intrigued by it should simply try it for themselves.
All true but, if you consider the audible effect of a 3dB increase, it is nearly inconsequential.