Impedance????

I started this when Diewallen inquired about vertically biamping. My rhetorical question was basically "If you use one preamp output through a double terminated (split?) interconnect into multiple amp inputs duplicating the signal into both channels, does it change the impedance the preamp sees enough to affect the outcome?" I didn't know the answer, but thought it might.

David (Diewallen) is this correct, or are you asking something else?

Jim S.

Seandtaylor99,

In your opinion, what is the consequence of halving the impedance with a Y interconnect in a vertical biamp configuration. Will it change the sound characteristics, or could it even endanger the amplifiers?

Thanks for your advice?

Jim S.

Thanks for your advice and the education!

Jim S.