Not a matter of impedance matching. A matter of drive impedance.
Best preamp is no preamp: always true?
There seems to be a school of thought that between two well-designed (read no major flaws) CDP and AMP, the best PREAMP is NO PREAMP at all (let's assume that the AMP has a sort of minimalist volume control).
Is this a solid and robust statement? What would be situations where this is not true (still no major design flaws)?
Is this a solid and robust statement? What would be situations where this is not true (still no major design flaws)?