Is equal gain OK for bi-amping?


My speakers are bi-ampable. Can I use my W4S ICE amp for the lower portion (28db gain) and then find another amp like a small tube amp with equal gain to run the upper portion? My pre-amp has multiple outs and I want to do this without another volume control between the pre and one of the amps. So my question really is: Will equal gain amps alow me to bi-amp without the need of input volume adjustments? Also is 1 db of difference in gain going to make a big difference?
koestner
For the output signals of both amps to be the same level, the input sensitivity of both amps must be the same and the gains must match also. Other characteristics also factor into this, but these two are the important factors. If the gains are the same, but the input sensitivity is different, then the output levels will not match for the same signal input. You "May" hear a gap or hole between the upper registers and the lower bass. Borrow an amp from a friend or dealer to use for a week or so before buying one to see if this is something you want to do or if another amp will work. An active crossover works wonders in this circumstance, and they have input matching or gain controls also.

enjoy
Hi Koestner, I would second what Minorl said. I am running a Marchand active crossover and bi-amping with a valve amp on top and a SS Class A/B amp on the bottom. The advantage of doing this is that the valve amp does not "see" any bass frequencies, so its apparent power is higher.

The downside of using an active crossover is that the slope of the crossover will sum with the internal passive crossover of your speaker, resulting in a steeper slope and possibly introducing phase issues. Ultimately the best solution is to go fully active - bypass your speaker's internal crossover and connect the amp directly to the drivers with an external active crossover in place.

You can do this upgrade in stages (which is what I did). Start off by bi-amping, then add the active crossover later.
Oops, seem like I forgot input impedance has to be the same also. Well that makes it a lot harder to do. Maybe I will get an integrated tube amp and adjust the volume until it sounds right on both top and bottom.

Will I really be wasting the power the upper amp makes in bass notes if the speaker's crossover blocks them, doesn't the speakers crossover create a much higher impedance at bass frequencies thereby not alowing the upper amp to waste that energy?
Minorl, your posts are always extremely knowledgeable and helpful, but in this case I'm not sure that you are correct regarding the need for sensitivities to match.

As I'm sure you realize, sensitivity is the input voltage that is required to drive the particular amplifier to its maximum rated output power, whatever that may be. I don't see how that relates to achieving a suitable match between amps in a passive bi-amp arrangement.

The goal would be that equal input voltages to the two amps result in equal output voltages. Assuming equal load impedances, that simply requires that the voltage gains of the two amps are equal.

What does concern me, though, is that the output voltage of the ss amp will be essentially constant as a function of load impedance, while the output voltage (and hence the gain) of the tube amp (with a higher output impedance) will not be. Depending on the speaker's impedance vs. frequency characteristics, that could result in a slight but conceivably significant deviation from frequency response flatness, especially if the tube amp's output impedance is high (i.e., its damping factor is low) and the speaker impedance at mid and high frequencies is low.

Also, the OP should keep in mind that in a passive bi-amp arrangement, if there is a large disparity in power capability between the two amps, much of the power capability of the ss amp will not be utilizable, because the volume level that can be utilized will be limited by the clipping point of the lower powered amp.
05-17-11: Koestner
Oops, seem like I forgot input impedance has to be the same also.
As long as the input impedances of both amps are much higher than the output impedance of the preamp, which they should be, that shouldn't matter. If the two outputs of the preamp are not separately buffered (as is usually but not always the case), the combined input impedances of the two amps should be at least 10x the maximum output impedance of the preamp across the audible frequency range. That combined input impedance is equal to the product (multiplication) of the two input impedances, divided by their sum.
Will I really be wasting the power the upper amp makes in bass notes if the speaker's crossover blocks them, doesn't the speakers crossover create a much higher impedance at bass frequencies thereby not alowing the upper amp to waste that energy?
In a passive bi-amp arrangement, the speaker's crossover will dramatically reduce the current demands on the upper frequency amp, but will not change the range of voltages that it needs to output. Its output voltage capability, however, may increase, at least a little bit, as a result of the reduced current demand.

Best regards,
-- Al