Technical question on phase inversion.


This past weekend, I replaced my solid state preamplifier with a tube preamp. What a difference! I really like the change in the sound but I'm confused by one thing. The MFA Magus B manual says this about the main outputs,  "NOTICE: The high-level stage of the Magus preamplifier is an inverting amplifier. Many audiophiles prefer to correct for this by reversing the speaker cables on BOTH speakers (+ to - and - to +)." So, now I'm confused! I have tried it both ways and they both sound good to me. I'm wondering if there is a rule of thumb about "inversion" that I'm not aware of. So far, I'm only listening to CD, if that helps. Don't get me started on how to correct for inversion when playing analog. That's my next adventure!
tonykay

Showing 2 responses by kijanki

My speakers are inverted, judging by direction of woofer's membrane movement when small DC voltage is applied. My DAC and amp are non-inverting.  I switched wires and sound changed, becoming tighter in the bass.  It was also mentioned in few Stereophile reviews including this one (Dali MS5 paragraph):
http://www.stereophile.com/content/fifth-element-22-page-older#TGueSFxlbl7YX344.97

I'm not sure why speaker designer decided to make it with inverted polarity, but I like it.  These speakers, in my room, sound better that way.  Of course it can be just the opposite for other CDs or it could be only my imagination - a placebo effect after reading Stereophile reviews, but I don't see a reason to change.

bdp24, that might be the case in my speakers.  Somebody stated that midrange drivers are in the opposite phase to woofers.  It would explain why designer wired/marked woofers in opposite phase in order to preserve proper midrange polarity.