Okay, I wan't to pose an honest (as opposed to rhetorical or provocative question) regarding efficiency vs. sensitivity. When comparing two speakers driven by the exact same amplifier, would the more efficient speaker (as cogently defined by Spkrplus) also be the more sensitive one? Logically, this would seem so, but I'm not sure if I'm missing another fundamental part of the equation. Would there be a circumstance where a speaker that is less efficient at converting electrical to acoustic energy is in fact more sensitive than a speaker that is less efficient? Thanks in advance for the enlightenment.
speaker effiency
hello can someone please tell why speakers with the same effiency, mind you different in that one is 4 ohm the other 8 ohm, that one would play loader then the other.the one that is 4ohm (thiel cs1.2 )is the one that plays loader. the other is gershman x-1.also next week i am adding the sw-1 sub.it is a passive sub.it has the same effiency as the others 87 or 88.my amp is ocm 200 (100 wpc ).will it get worse (if that's the word )