If a preamp actually amplifies, where on the volume control is zero gain? That would have to be about 5 oclock on the dial, which we never use. So why would we want to amplify a signal just to attenuate it?
I understand that a preamp doesn't actually amplify, rather it optimizes impedences to optimize power transfer. Of course, whether one can hear the difference continues to be the subject of debate (in my mind as well).
I understand that a preamp doesn't actually amplify, rather it optimizes impedences to optimize power transfer. Of course, whether one can hear the difference continues to be the subject of debate (in my mind as well).