Phase inverting preamps

Thanks, Phild. Does this in any way compromise sound quality? And, why would the maker of a preamp produce a unit that inverts phasing? Is there something specific they are trying to achieve that is negated by reversing the phasing elsewhere? Seems like it would be easier just to make the preamp without inverting the phase. Is it a cost savings measure?

Gee, and here I thought I was the only one confused! :-) As I understand things so far, if you have a preamp that has inversed phasing (polarity), one must "flip-flop" traditional connections at the SPEAKER posts (i.e. positive to negative and negative to positive). Correct? I imagine that experienced hands here at Audiogon will find this dilemna at least mildly amusing, so excuse my (our) confusion.

My readings said that the inverse phasing must be accounted for SOMEWHERE in the system. Does it make a difference WHERE this occurs? Who has the authoritative word on this subject?!

Thanks to all. The intent of my original post was to determine what need be done to account for the "inverse phasing" of a preamp (subsequently clarified to note that what they should REALLY say is reversed polarity). And, I now know that the connections at the speaker posts should be reversed. That being said, I have also appreciated the more in depth discussion of the difference between phasing and polarity. While I knew there was a difference I have enjoyed hearing the nuances of the differences and the reality of inconsistencies within recording mediums.

It never hurts to go into more detail, as long as you know what you're talking about! Those who find it boring or something they already know can easily click to the next topic. :-)