Passive biamping question


If I have a six channel amplifier with one power supply per two channels and say each channel puts out say 100 watts, if I biamp with two channels per speaker for the three front channels of a HT system will this be basically like having 200 watts per channel and will the frequency balance of the speakers remain essentially the same? Thanks.
bobbob

Showing 3 responses by bobbob

On further research, it seems that the spectral distibution of music is around a 50-50 split around 250hz, and for a three way system, that is close to where the crossover would be between midrange and woofer. So I'm thinking it could be beneficial.
True, but 3db is still the difference between 150 and 300w, 200 and 400, etc. Say, you have an amp that you really like but want new speakers that are less efficient, rather than sell the amp, you could buy another amp exactly the same, new or used, and it could be very cost effective.