Need help from smart people - biamping


Hi, I know some of you are electrical engineers or just knowledgeable - looking for your input. I'm looking at the option of bi-amping my speakers. One amp on the mid-tweet connection and an identical amp on the bass connection. Speakers are B&W N804s. Question is, if you do this do the two amps react to the loads as one amp would, or is it possible that if the two connections (drivers) have different impedences, the bass might be louder relative to the mid-tweet, or quieter? In other words, if the upper end has impedence of 8 Ohms and the amp puts out 100 w/ch at 8 ohms, and the lower end is at 4 ohms, and the amp 200 w/ch at 4 ohms, will this result in a problem in the resulting aural output than would have been experience with a single amp? Thank you.
jimmy2615

Showing 1 response by bombaywalla

here's some more info for you re. biamping
http://forum.audiogon.com/cgi-bin/fr.pl?aamps&1274907651&openflup&4&4#4

i like Eldartford's phrase that this should be called "dual amping" because biamping means something different (where you gut the speaker's internal x-overs & use an external x-over to split the frequency spectrum & pass on only that portion of the freq spectrum that the driver is capable of handling).

And, back in Jan 2012, we discussed this bi-amping thread, which you should read (skip over the bickering, please):
http://forum.audiogon.com/cgi-bin/fr.pl?cspkr&1326877788