Do we agree that it is less inaccurate if the speaker doesn't intentionally remove harmonic content by inverting the phase of the midrange relative to the tweeter and woofer? This "band aid" is used frequently in design by some of the most "prestigious" manufacturers in order to attempt to compensate for high order crossover anomalies.
At the very least do we agree that speakers should first minimize doing any harm to the signal they are fed? If so then why would we be interested in any speakers that intentionally, by design, actively "damage" the harmonic content of complex timbres that define voicing of various instruments and voices? Even electronic instruments that can be recorded and reproduced through the electronic chain as accurately as possible will suffer in this regard if harmonic content, complexity of overtones and timbre, are altered by intentional attempts to "correct" problems inherent in the electrical architecture of a speaker.
At the very least do we agree that speakers should first minimize doing any harm to the signal they are fed? If so then why would we be interested in any speakers that intentionally, by design, actively "damage" the harmonic content of complex timbres that define voicing of various instruments and voices? Even electronic instruments that can be recorded and reproduced through the electronic chain as accurately as possible will suffer in this regard if harmonic content, complexity of overtones and timbre, are altered by intentional attempts to "correct" problems inherent in the electrical architecture of a speaker.