McIntosh MC402 or MC501's for Totem Mani-2


Hello All,

I am currently in the process of putting together my McIntosh system consisting of a C2300 pre, MCD301 and either the MC402 or MC501's to power Totem Mani-2 Sigs. Would it be worth the extra dough to add the additional 100 watts for the mani's? I emailed Totem a while back and they stated that they had paired the 402 with the Mani's with outstanding results. I really dont want to spend the extra money unless the 501's would be a big step up. Based on my listening experience with other speakers with these amps I don't see the need for the 501's. However I have not had a chance to hear the Mani's with the 501's and I know they like power. Any comments or suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

Luke
ltecyclist

Showing 2 responses by musicnoise

Wireless makes a good point. It is just human nature to stick to the validity of one's purchase once the choice has been made. So long as the amp stays linear (doesn't clip) there should not be any difference in the sound between the 402, 501's and 1.2k's. All are fully balanced or quad balanced as Mc puts it, and, I believe all have the same noise floor. Depending on the genre of music to which one one listens, it can get to even a further degree of diminishing returns. 99 % of the music I listen to is classical. I would estimate that 99 percent of actual time, my 402 is operating under 40 watts (a decent A/V receiver from denon or yamaha could handle that). So the Mc amp is only really doing what I have it for, for 1% of the time. Of course I find that 1% to be important or I wouldn't have the amp. As I said earlier, to stay linear with the 802D's pushed to their limit, something larger than the 402 is necessary, but I would have a listen first. Not everyone even wants to listen at those levels.
Why would a 1.2 k amp sound noticeably more powerful than a 400 watt amp at low listening levels (i.e providing 10 watts output)? All an amplifier does is reproduce the input signal with at increased voltage levels. The amps current capability allows for this reproduction when applied to a given load. There is no rational basis for stating that two different amps would sound different when both are operating in their linear regions. Where in the spec sheet on an amplifier is the measurement for "sounds more powerful"? In such a simple system as an amplifier for audio signals, if the paramater is not and cannot be measured, quantified, and listed, then it is without meaning. How do these people confirm the difference between the sound of a 501 and 402? By their statements? That is not confirmation, it is merely an assertion. As to the 6500 vs 6900 analogy - an argument that confirms, rather than refutes, the point of bias created by one's purchase.