frequency range for instrument vs speaker


http://www.independentrecording.net/irn/resources/freqchart/main_display.htm

After seeing this link in another thread, I wonder about this. Let say that you don't listen to any classical instrument/music, normal rock and pop with no heavy synthetizer, just drum, guitar, etc, it seems that there isn't really any need for speakers that go much below 40Hz, considering that the lowest instrument, the kick drum (I assume it is the same thing as bass drum?) only go down to 50Hz.
Certainly listening to this type of music via speaker that go down flat to 40Hz vs 20Hz, bottom end is certainly quite different but I am not sure what is it that I hear in the subbass area (according to the chart) that is not suppose to be there, at least according to the instrument's frequency? Does drum give out something lower than its fundamental?
suteetat

Showing 1 response by irvrobinson

I have spectral analysis software on my laptop (the OmniMic from Parts Express), and a surprising number of recording show sub-30Hz energy, especially Telarc CDs. If you're into contemporary jazz I think the 20-40Hz octave is critical for really hearing what's on the recording.

Over the past year I've become a huge fan of subwoofers, and not because I want to blow myself out of the room with bass, but because you can sometimes get much smoother bass by placing one or more subs in appropriate locations than you can with just a pair of stereo speakers. It is really the smoothness of the in-room response between 20Hz and 100Hz that determines bass quality.

If you get an OmniMic or a similar set-up and measure your in-room response you might be very surprised at the number peaks and dips you see, often exceeding +/- 10db. Every room has different modes, and moving your speakers even an inch one way or the other can often make a big difference.