frequency range for instrument vs speaker


http://www.independentrecording.net/irn/resources/freqchart/main_display.htm

After seeing this link in another thread, I wonder about this. Let say that you don't listen to any classical instrument/music, normal rock and pop with no heavy synthetizer, just drum, guitar, etc, it seems that there isn't really any need for speakers that go much below 40Hz, considering that the lowest instrument, the kick drum (I assume it is the same thing as bass drum?) only go down to 50Hz.
Certainly listening to this type of music via speaker that go down flat to 40Hz vs 20Hz, bottom end is certainly quite different but I am not sure what is it that I hear in the subbass area (according to the chart) that is not suppose to be there, at least according to the instrument's frequency? Does drum give out something lower than its fundamental?
suteetat

Showing 1 response by ecruz

FWIW, I'll share my experience on this.

I once heard a demo at a local shop. It was a recording of an acoustic guitar. Nothing else. Don't remember exactly what speakers I was listening to. I listened for a while, it sounded very nice. The dealer then said," I'm going to switch things up a bit and let you listen to the same recording, same speakers, same amp. Tell me what you think". I listened again, wow! It sounded more real, deeper soundstage, more immediate, etc. Like the notes were floating out there instead of coming from the speakers. I asked if he switched cd players? "Nope", he said, "I turned on the REL sub in the corner over there".

Even if the notes only go down to 40hz, there's something below that frequency that we feel or sense or something.