Do CD-R's sound the same as originals


does a burned copy of a cd sound the same as the original
soundwatts5b9e

Showing 5 responses by tubegroover

Well Carl if you say you can who am I to say you can't? My tests were done on both my system and my friends, both highly resolving systems and the results were the same for us. Ironically the first time we did the test I picked the copy as being the original 5 out of 5 times. Now I guess the only thing that proves is I thought the copy sounds better than the original and also that I really did hear a difference. It could never be repeated so it was probably luck on the order of being dealt a full house poker hand.
I have done the test repeatedly and absolutely can't hear a difference unless there is an error on the copy that makes it clearly audible. Have performed the test on apparently good copies and both myself and a friend I listen with regularly, couldn't hear a difference. We have done blind tests on numerous occasions, the results are always the same. I don't even pretend that I can hear differences because I hear none. Those that can hear a difference would have to prove it to me. Not that I really care other than I have a difficult time imagining it. I say if you can REALLY hear a difference of a good copy from the original you have better ears than I do.
"Hi there, The theory is simple - in bit-for-bit perfect copy there is no loss of information. Period." Thanks Kocho, I agree and with that theory working in practice I would be much interested in knowing if others still believe they can hear a difference. I say nada a difference.
Have been following this thread with great interest although I can't add anything more than has been previously stated. If you can DEFINITELY hear a difference other than anomalities from the transfer, I can't. Have any of the proponents that note these differences done any blind tests to absolutely confirm their findings? I would be interested in knowing and also the details of how the tests were conducted. I do not doubt that differences were heard if stated but I just did some blind tests again this weekend and again could not differentiate between original and copy during the music, only when going between tracks. I believe one can hear what they want to hear if prejudiced by knowing what they are listening to before hand. That isn't to say there are differences. I am curious about it for the fact that there is such division on this issue, why? Does this have to do with better hearing for the proponents that can hear the difference or do they know what they are listening to first and then make their determination accordingly? Or finally are their copies really so different to the point that the differences could be heard by anyone?