Biamping w/ a 5 channel amp?


Ok...if your using a HT 5 channel amp
and decide to run the fronts to the highs and the rears to the lows.
Is this biamping?

If the amp in question uses a single power supply...wouldn't this be technically biwiring? since if the lows drive the amp to clipping won't it clip the fronts also?

I hope this makes sense!

(Ps this isn't something I'm trying...my brain is just jumping through hoops tonight and I was hoping someone could set me straight!)
geoffgarcia

Showing 2 responses by geoffgarcia

its a theoretical question...
not something I would be doing.

I'm not sure what you mean about how I would use the interconnects...I'm not savy on higher end HT. I currently use a 5 channel receiver that has equal output per channel and assume I would simply run a cdp or other source to the receive, run the receiver in equal output 5 channel mode (not any surround type) and that would be it...