Biamping; Amps w. Different power ratings?


If a person uses two amps of differing power levels, will there be a noticeable difference in volume? I've got an Outlaw Audio 755 which is 200wpc. I'm thinking of adding an Outlaw 750, which is 165wpc also. I would use the lower power amp for the bass, and the higher for the treble.
I will have a speaker system comprising four Eminent Technology LFT-8's (biwired and biamped configuration for each of them) and will use 8 channels of amplification. The four bass drivers would be from the lower power Outlaw amp (165) and the highs from the 200wpc amp.

Or, would I be better served to make one speaker completely driven by the 165wpc, and the other by the 200wpc?

I will be sending signal to all 8 amp inputs through the same preamp - a Rogue Audio Magnum 66 (which has a selectable second main out; the signal from each pair of outs will be split and delivered to the 8 amp inputs.

So, would the difference in power cause volume discrepancies between either the bass and treble, or between entire speakers (depending on how I hooked them up).

Comments, suggestions welcome!
douglas_schroeder

Showing 1 response by gregm

I'd use the higher powered amp for the bass units of course.
The relative amplitude is not a matter of Watt rating but of input sensitivity of each amp. If it's the same there's no problem.

If I understood yr questions correctly. CHeers