Bi-amping???????'s


I currently have a pair of b&w 605's with a Kenwood Km-z1 amplifier (6x115) and a Rotel 960ax pre-amp. I am in college and running on a tight budget. I was wondering if there would be any significant advantage to using 4 of my channels on my kenwood to power my 605's, as opposed to 2 (the B&W's have bi-wiring posts) If I were to do this would I simply split the outputs and run them into multiple channels on the amp? I have done some reading about bi-amping and it refers to adding additional cross-overs, ect..... Any info would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks,
Kyle
speedychamp

Showing 1 response by amandarae

I am a little bit lost about :

"If you didn't have to split the signal at the amp end, you would probably be gaining something, but I would guess you will have signal loss when you split, and so that will take away from anything the biamping would have achieved"

Assuming that you have 4 identical amps(identical input impedances), using 2 sets of identical interconnects (lenght, characteristic impedance(Z0), construction, model, and termination), and a preamp with one set of output (say RCA or XLR)is your statement still true?

I thought one of the reason behind the design, for max voltage out, on preamps (RMS) is chosen so that it can drive longer interconnect without any problems of preamp loading or attenuation. All you lost is just a few clicks from the volume control. Also, for a significant degredation of signal output (or sound) on preamps of this design, the lenght of the cable (taking into consideration the characteristic impedance; resistive, inductive or capacitive in nature)will be in the order of about several hundred feet. So what exactly is lost when you split a signal for interconnects, say about 1 meter?

Please don't get me wrong, I am not criticizing your statement. I just want to understand if what is really true in this kind of scenario.