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Accurate vs Musical

What is the basis for buying an "accurate" speaker over a "musical" one? I am very familiar with most audiophile jargon but this is one that confuses me. Musical to me means that the speakers convey the "air" or/and overtone of instruments.

"Accurate" on the other hand is what, the accuracy of a single note? If accurate does not convey the space of an instrument, how can it be defined as accurate? I can understand why an "accurate" speaker can be used in a recording studio or as a studio monitor but for casual listening/auditioning?

Thiel is an accurate speaker but Magnepan is more musical so which would truly be more faithful to the original source? Someone please clear this up for me. Thanks.
ebonyvette

Showing 4 responses by inpepinnovations1e75

inpepinnovations1e75
395 posts
 
Accurate includes musical IF music there is. Musical does not include accuracy, however, and 'imposes' music when there isn't any to be had.
I prefer to make up my own mind about whether there is music there or not and not have some other person's interpretation of what music I should hear.
Bob P.
inpepinnovations1e75
395 posts
 
songwriter, of course the musician playing eighth notes while the others are playing quarters will be heard, since he is playing twice as many notes in the same time! Has nothing to do with phase or timing!
inpepinnovations1e75
395 posts
 
Speakers should reproduce accurately the music contained on the recording. Speakers should not be another musical instrument imposed on top of the recorded music.
Some prefer one version of speaker to the other. You chose which fits your vision and forget the terms that audiophiles use.
inpepinnovations1e75
395 posts
 
Baroque, how do you know that the speakers reproduced the recording perfectly? And if they hadn't reproduced them perfectly, would you have preferred the recording? I am confused!
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