No, the sensitivities will not change. You will have to provide some means of compensating for the difference in the gain of the two amps. Otherwise a tonal imbalance will result.
Most likely the 500W amp will have higher gain than the 80W amp, so if the 500W amp does not provide a means of reducing its gain (i.e., a volume control), and assuming that you are referring to passive biamping (i.e., no active crossover ahead of the amplifiers) you would have to place some sort of passive attenuator in series with the input of that amp.
Also, again assuming that you are referring to passive biamping, since the equalized gains will result in both amps having to output essentially the same voltage at any given instant, corresponding to the full frequency range of the signal, you will probably not be able to utilize a lot of the power capability of the 500W amp. How high you will be able to turn up the volume control on your preamp, without distortion, will be limited by the clipping point of the lower powered amp.
Regards,
-- Al
Most likely the 500W amp will have higher gain than the 80W amp, so if the 500W amp does not provide a means of reducing its gain (i.e., a volume control), and assuming that you are referring to passive biamping (i.e., no active crossover ahead of the amplifiers) you would have to place some sort of passive attenuator in series with the input of that amp.
Also, again assuming that you are referring to passive biamping, since the equalized gains will result in both amps having to output essentially the same voltage at any given instant, corresponding to the full frequency range of the signal, you will probably not be able to utilize a lot of the power capability of the 500W amp. How high you will be able to turn up the volume control on your preamp, without distortion, will be limited by the clipping point of the lower powered amp.
Regards,
-- Al